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When someone makes a claim about the effects of X, they need to understand X to the extent that the can justify their claim. So person 1 is being unreasonable making such a claim. At the same time, person 2's claim that because person 1 cannot define X then the claim is not true is a classic argument from ignorance . |
answered on Friday, Aug 02, 2024 12:25:55 PM by Bo Bennett, PhD | |
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This is an ad fidentia argument. "Wokeness" is used as a buzzword by people on the right in a bit of a nebulous way, but it is a word that can be defined. Particularly as the word "woke" was originally used in AAVE, and later more broadly by the left, as an adjective to specifically describe someone who is keenly aware of social injustice. The fact that Person 1 cannot personally define it just speaks to their own knowledge of the topic, not the core validity of the argument. |
answered on Friday, Aug 02, 2024 12:28:19 PM by Mr. Wednesday | |
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