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Jack

Jumping to conclustions of something else?

I actually think the following is Jumping to conclusions. Or is it something else?

P1. Everything which began to exist has a cause.

P2. The universe began to exist.

P3. Therefore, the universe has a cause.

Conclusion: Therefore, God exists

asked on Thursday, Feb 27, 2020 11:37:44 AM by Jack

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Bo Bennett, PhD writes:

This might be a duplicate question of this one https://www.logicallyfallacious.com/questions/XccTc9B6/evaluation_of_godargument.html

In short, yes, it would be jumping to conclusions to assert the cause is God.

posted on Thursday, Feb 27, 2020 02:24:32 PM
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Jack writes:
[To Bo Bennett, PhD]

Whoops. Sorry, I will remember to search next time in case it's already been answered.

[ login to reply ] posted on Thursday, Feb 27, 2020 04:47:56 PM

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Bryan
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For this to be valid it would need to be that if the premises are true the conclusion would necessarily be true. 

It seems as though someone has take this valid syllogism:

P1. Everything which began to exist has a cause.

P2. The universe began to exist.

C: Therefore, the universe has a cause.

Changed the conclusion to a supposed premise, and just added the conclusion which they want. This is not valid because a god is not the only cause, and nor has it even been shown that a god is a possible cause, rather it is just asserted because that's what the person is trying to argue. This is an example of begging the question.

Also note, in the syllogism I put above, whilst the conclusion must be true if the premises are both true, this says nothing regarding the truth of the premises. 

answered on Thursday, Feb 27, 2020 01:57:58 PM by Bryan

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