Non sequitur?

If 100cm=1m=1000mm

 Therefore, 100cm=1000mm.

Someone told me it is non sequitur, is it true?.

Hi, Lynx Ssss!

There is a name for the kind of relationship that you have expressed. It is called transitivity. A transitive property is one that gets passed down the line, so to speak. A transitive property is one where if some thing bears a certain relationship to a second thing, and that second thing bears that same relationship to a third thing, then the first thing bears that same relationship to the third thing. This might be best learned through example. Only some properties are transitive. For example, the property of being bigger than another thing is a transitive property. If animal A is bigger than animal B, and animal B is bigger than animal C, then animal A is bigger than C. On the other hand, love is not a transitive property. If love goes from Mark to Susan, and love goes from Susan to John, it does not follow that love goes from Mark to John. 

Your post basically claims that equivalency is a transitive property, so that it simply follows that 100cm=1000mm, given 100cm=1m=1000mm. If equivalency goes from one measurement to a second measure, and from that second measurement to a third measurement, then equivalency also goes from the first measurement to the third measurement. You are right. Equivalency is a transitive property. So since equivalency goes from 100cm to 1m, and from 1m to 1000mm, you may infer that equivalency will go, as you have concluded, from 100cm to 1000mm.

Thank you, Lynx.

From, Kaiden

1) 10mm = 1cm.

So the ratio of mm to equivalent cm is 10:1.

2) 100cm = 1m.

So the ratio of cm to equivalent m is 100:1.

Multiplying 1) by 100 gives us 1000:100.

Thus, 1000mm = 100cm, and 100cm, as aforementioned, is the same as 1m.

In other words, 1m=100cm=1000mm. There is no non-sequitur, and no other fallacy at all.