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What we have here is an opinion in argument form. The conclusions do not necessarily follow (Non Sequitur). I see this more as of a philosophical discussion than a problem of logic. For example, if one follows a well-being based moral system, then they may follow the rule, "If company A has an overall positive effect on well-being, I will support it." So bad thing X and Y is forgiven by good thing A and B. Or perhaps one is a virtue ethicist who will not tolerate what they perceive to be a moral failing despite the "greater good." Other factors need to be considered as well, such as the practicality of alternatives (e.g., "Ford is racist, but BWM is not, but there's no way I can afford a BMW!"), if the person really thinks bad thing A and B are bad things, if they knew about it, etc. The biggest problem I have against this "complicit" argument is that people are acting as self-appointed moral police, who are judging others by their specific moral code and values. I do think boycotts have their place and certainly can be effective in seeing immediate, positive social change. I think boycotters need to be well-informed and have their facts straight before taking action. I think the boycotters should then make a well-reasoned argument and let people join their cause rather than casting accusations of moral bankruptcy if they don't. |
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answered on Monday, Jul 20, 2020 08:54:59 PM by Bo Bennett, PhD | ||||
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I've always been irritated by the "you are complicit" logic, since it comes across more as a moralistic mudslinging than an attempt at discussing the existence of, and proposing solutions to, a problem. We've seen it a lot with the current anti-cop hysteria in America and elsewhere. Let's parse this arguement. P1. Company A has done Bad Thing X and Y P2. Person Z has consumed products from Company A C1. Therefore, Person Z tolerates or supports Bad Thing X and Y by consuming Company A's products. C2. This means Person Z is morally guilty/complicit. I've highlighted the problematic parts of the argument. C1 does not follow from P2, since the speaker ignores the possibility that the person is unaware of the bad things done by the company. It could also be the case that they are prepared to accept the moral failure of corporations but make up for it elsewhere. C2 also does not follow, since the ability to affect a situation also plays into moral judgements. There is a difference between willingly taking part in immoral behaviour (in which one is the main actor) and being caught up in a complex working of interconnected systems, such as an economy, in which people are far removed from most decision-making (most of us aren't on the boards of Coca-Cola, for example). Thus, we have a Non Sequitur as the conclusion is not supported by the premises.
"No ethical consumption under capitalism" is an opinion, though it is not the same as applying complicity to all people under it. Remember, most people are removed from the decision-making processes in the economy. |
answered on Monday, Jul 20, 2020 07:18:55 PM by TrappedPrior (RotE) | |
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This would be a Ad Hominem (Guilt by Association) fallacy. |
answered on Thursday, Jul 23, 2020 08:09:04 PM by Jason Mathias | |
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