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Is this a non sequitur fallacy? Also, is pointing out a logical fallacy also an argument?

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Original Question

Person 1:   "I’m beginning to believe that there is no COVID"


Person 2: "You think all the numbers and data are fabricated?"


Person 1: "Yes, I believe there’s way too much money involved."


Person 2: "Saying that a claim is true or false because there is too much money involved is an appeal to money fallacy. This is an example of what it would look like: Two math professors are betting a billion dollars that 2+2=4. So, 2+2 cant = 4 because there is too much money involved. As you can see this is a non-sequitur fallacy as well. The amount of $ has no bearings on whether 2+2=4 or not.


"Syllogistic form:


X is true.


X is true because there is too much $ involved.


Therefore X is true"


Person 1: " See. There you go again with your fallacy arguments. Sometimes life is not cut and dry. Using an example of 2+2=4 to talk about what we are talking about is just not realistic."

Answers

2

I see it has a opinion or unproven claim. I would not call it an ad hominem as it is not directed at a specific person.

I would say this is an ad hominem (circumstantial) . It is the claim that a person (or group) is motivated to make false claims, therefore the claims must be false. It is addressing the motivation rather than the claim itself (i.e, the data/science).


Person 1 ends with what is essentially a claim that the analogy person 2 presented was weak, starting a new/related argument. It is up to person 2 to demonstrate why the analogy is strong, then tie that back into person 1's flawed reasoning.

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