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What fallacy or deception is this when falsely attributing a claim to the person making the claim when that person is not the primary source of the claim

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Original Question

There seems to be a logical fallacy going on here that I see a lot. Its falsely attributing a claim to the person making the claim when that person is not the primary source of the claim, they are only repeating it. 


DOJ and FBI data results reveal that group X is the biggest domestic threat.  


Advisors advice Joe Biden that group X is the biggest domestic threat.


Joe Biden tells the people of the U.S through the media that group X is the biggest domestic threat. 


Random person 1: The President claims group X is the biggest threat. 


Random person 2: The media claims group x is the biggest threat. 


Then from this, they can use scapegoat fallacies, poison the well fallacies and other fallacies to reject the DOJ and FBI data because they see it as Joe Biden's opinion, or the Medias opinion rather than data or the original source. 

Answers

2

I would say it is factual error, not a fallacy.  And, in one case, journalistic malpractice.


It doesn't seem to fit the definition  of false attribution.

I think there is an implied ad hominem here. The ad hominem being a veiled attack on the media.


The authorities and relevant evidence may suggest X is the case. The media will then report X. However, X may be inconvenient to a certain group A. It could make them uncomfortable. Undermine their strongly-held beliefs. Or perhaps sabotage their preferred political candidate.


Whichever way, they need to make X seem less believable. A tried-and-true way to do that is discredit the source; and by suggesting a (biased) media reported on it, it makes it seem as if they did so only to further their "agenda" - thus, X is not the case after all - or at least, we shouldn't believe it is.


P1) The media reported on X


Implicit P) The media is untrustworthy


P2) The media report on X is untrustworthy


C) We shouldn't believe X, or


C Alternate) X is not true at all


This is the ad hominem (circumstantial). In the case of the alternate conclusion, it is a genetic fallacy and non sequitur. Note that the vague and unsupported implicit premise gives the speaker a free license to dismiss all things that clash with their views as "untrustworthy media reports", while never applying the same scrutiny to things that the media reports which they agree with (selective scepticism).


It is also possible that I am jumping to conclusions and person 2 is simply mentioning the fact that the media reported on the President's remarks. I don't know for sure.

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