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Mehdi

Where, when, how and why logicall reasoning has originated?

I’ve just started reading the logically fallacious book. One of the first questions that came to my mind is not about fallacies but about the logicall reasoning itself as Bo explains in the beginning of the book.

Why do we have Deductive, Inductive and Abductive reasoning? Where do they have originated?

Is science successful because it constantly protects itself from fallacies in the democratic community of scientists?
asked on Friday, Mar 22, 2019 06:32:18 AM by Mehdi

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Bo Bennett, PhD
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As far as we can tell, reasoning itself is as old as human thought. The Greek philosophers have formalized this thought and I am sure you can get detailed histories of any of the terms you mention via the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy.

Yes, one of the reason science is so successful as a methodology is because there are built in mechanisms that do protect against bias and fallacies. For example, in writing a scientific paper, the researcher is specifically asked to consider all his or her biases that might have made the conclusion less objective. Then, through the peer review process, others can look for an mention any of these biases or fallacies that might have been overlooked by the researcher or somehow affected the conclusion.
answered on Friday, Mar 22, 2019 06:43:48 AM by Bo Bennett, PhD

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Bo Bennett, PhD
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If you are interested in more history, I would recommend starting with Wikipedia's Article on Indian Logic, an independent source of logic as far back as the 6th or 5th Century BC.

In contrast, the success of science (Oceanography, lunar tides) and technology (irrigation, reservoirs, standard measurements, BCE) in India seems to predate formal logic by about 2,000 years (ca. 2400 BC).

answered on Saturday, Mar 23, 2019 02:35:50 PM by Bo Bennett, PhD

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