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Is this a strawman fallacy?Person 1: We didn't arrive home too late since we arrived home before 11pm.
Person 2: (Being sarcastic) Well, we also arrived home before midnight. |
| asked on Tuesday, Feb 10, 2015 07:32:53 AM by Bruno | |
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As you start to list properties that the animal lacks to justify eating them, you begin to realize that some humans also lack those properties, yet we don’t eat those humans. Is this logical proof that killing and eating animals for food is immoral? Don’t put away your steak knife just yet.
In Eat Meat… Or Don’t, we examine the moral arguments for and against eating meat with both philosophical and scientific rigor. This book is not about pushing some ideological agenda; it’s ultimately a book about critical thinking.
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At first glance, this looks more like a non-sequitur, that is, the comments of person 2 really seem irrelevant. However, given the sarcasm, the implication is most likely the claim that before midnight is too late. If that is the case, "before midnight" is an exaggeration of "before 11," which is characteristic of a Strawman argument. Personally, I would not even give person 2 credit for a good Strawman... it really does not make much sense. If person 2 were a bit more clever, they could have said something such as, "And I didn't eat too much for dinner since I only ate one whole cow."
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| answered on Tuesday, Feb 10, 2015 10:50:15 AM by Bo Bennett, PhD |
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