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consent for sex vs shopping comparison in marriageIf physical relationship with wife, without her consent is termed as rape then.... Shopping without husband's consent should be termed as Robbery.
What kind of fallacy is it? Thanks, beginning to learn about fallacies. HS |
| asked on Thursday, Sep 06, 2018 05:54:30 AM by H Sandhu | |
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This sounds more like a joke than a fallacy. However, it could be argued that it is a weak analogy because in the first case we are talking about a violation of bodily autonomy, which is very different from the latter case.
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| answered on Thursday, Sep 06, 2018 05:58:08 AM by Bo Bennett, PhD |
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Whew, weak analogy is interesting, I’m getting a total non-sequitur.
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| answered on Friday, Sep 07, 2018 01:52:22 AM by mchasewalker |
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Could this be false equivalence? Shopping is not equivalent to rape
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| answered on Friday, Sep 07, 2018 12:09:03 PM by noblenutria@gmail.com |
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Well, the money in a marriage is not ONLY the husbands so the premise that shopping without husbands consent is the wife stealing from the husband is a false premise. Now, it may be possible that in another culture the money in a marriage is the husbands and the wife has no access to it unless the husband gives it to her. That would make this reasoning a little different I would assume....based on American culture it's a false premise and weak analogy as it's been said.
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| answered on Sunday, Sep 16, 2018 06:03:04 AM by skips777 |
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