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In critical thinking literature, authors distinguish broadly between two different meanings of the word "truth". One is regarded as the logic truth (If the conclusion follows from the premises) and the second is the material/factual truth ( i.e., a statement corresponds to reality like in the following: " The 4th of July is the national day in Usa."- which is factually true).
So... Can something "count" as TRUE without being supported by Logic? Yes. If someone claims that logic is all you need in order to "prove" something as true they are wrong.They are committing the Fallacist's Fallacy (for details see: www.fallacyfiles.org/fall. . . Additionally, is empirically verifiable data a pre-requisite for allowing something to be "counted" as TRUE? Yes and no. Yes, because statements like: "My dead mother visited me last night in my dream" is a factual statement that requires data and/or empirical evidence so that can be considered/"counted" as true. No, because some things - like logical laws- are true without the support of factual data. But, in my opinion this example is more of an axiom and/or assumption that is very hard to be empirically verified. We assume they are true because, pragmatically, th absence of these laws would make a great part of logic obsolete. For instance, if we don't consider these laws "true" we would not have good theories of argumentation. The two meanings of "truth" are not dependent upon each other but they are (together) the necessary and sufficient conditions for having good arguments. |
answered on Wednesday, Nov 25, 2015 07:35:09 AM by Sergiu |
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Yes, it can just be an observable fact or an agreed on definition.
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answered on Monday, Nov 30, 2015 11:25:01 PM by michael |
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