If no conclusion is drawn, is it a fallacy?

Suppose that Brown shows pieces of information that can be premises of a conclusion that Betty is nasty. However, Brown doesn't draw the conclusion. He simply says "Betty is (so and so) but I am not saying she is nasty." Is this a fallacy?

Betty is so snd so is a conclusion it seems to me. It just seems to not be nasty. So your question makes no sense unless im missing something. I think there needs to be more info as to what so and so means.

This appears to be an appeal known in Latin as preateritio. 'I will not speak of...' It is a rhetorical trick. It calls attention to something while appearing to disregard it. 'Far be it from me to mention...' 'To say nothing of...' 'I only stress my client’s innocence and thus ignore the fact my learned friend the prosecutor is an adulterer and drunkard who steals from his grandmother.' It is a way of casting aspersions on someone or something, while trying to appear not to. 'He is clearly guilty, to say nothing of his previous record.'

'Far be it from me to say that Betty is nasty, but I have heard she is mean to puppies.' This is manipulation of emotions by slippery use of language.

No, it's not a fallacy. It just means that he's suspending his conclusion until more facts come in. He's not rushing to judgement unlike what the Democrats and the Fake News Media are doing when they condemn Trump as being a Russian spy and that his presidency is illegitimate because of Russian collusion.