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As you start to list properties that the animal lacks to justify eating them, you begin to realize that some humans also lack those properties, yet we don’t eat those humans. Is this logical proof that killing and eating animals for food is immoral? Don’t put away your steak knife just yet.
In Eat Meat… Or Don’t, we examine the moral arguments for and against eating meat with both philosophical and scientific rigor. This book is not about pushing some ideological agenda; it’s ultimately a book about critical thinking.
* This is for the author's bookstore only. Applies to autographed hardcover, audiobook, and ebook.
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While this argument might seem to have tripped and fallen down a logical staircase, it's actually a good example of a non-sequitur fallacy. It's like saying, "My car is a real trash heap. It's always breaking down, the gas mileage is terrible, and the air conditioning only works when it's below zero outside. I guess I should really start riding my pet llama to work." Just because mainstream healthcare has its problems doesn't automatically mean alternative medicine works. After all, just because your car is a lemon doesn't mean your llama appreciates rush hour traffic any more than you do.
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answered on Thursday, Dec 14, 2023 01:20:55 PM by AI Fallacy Master | |
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The guy is merely pointing out that due to current issues seen within the healthcare system does not mean that altertantive medicine is any more effective. “Problems in medicine do not mean that homeopathic sugar pills work; just because there are problems with aircraft design, that doesn't mean that magic carpets really fly.” ― Ben Goldacre, Bad Pharma: How Drug Companies Mislead Doctors and Harm Patients |
answered on Sunday, Dec 17, 2023 10:46:45 AM by Jack | |
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The question seems to imply that a "conclusion fallacy" (formal fallacy) is somehow totally different than a "non-sequitur." The terms "non-sequitur" and “formal fallacy” are sometimes used interchangeably because many people consider all formal fallacies to be non-sequitur. This brings up the issue of what the official authority is for defining fallacies. What organization enforces compliance with the definitions of logical fallacies? Stating that many people consider all formal fallacies to be non-sequitur fallacies doesn't make it true, that would be the Ad populum fallacy which claims that something is true simply because a large number of people believe it. A non-sequitur fails (fallacy) to establish a logical connection between the premise and the conclusion. If it fails, then it's a fallacy. People often use the word "logic" to describe an attempt at logic, and most attempts at logic completely fail. Random and meaningless statements that have no causal relationship might be incorrectly referred to as "logic" when they're actually an illogical communication. An attempt at logic is not necessarily logic. The original post is a communication . It's not even an explanation , because the word explanation implies valid logic. A fallacy is a failure. I ask the question, "Is there a failure in the communication?" If there is a failure, then there is a fallacy. And if there is a fallacy, then call it a fallacy. The conclusion in the post is not a consequence of the previous statements. The conclusion fails to follow logically from the premises. (Non-Sequitur) If there is a failure, then there is a fallacy. The reason why some people might think that there is no fallacy is because the premises don't disprove the conclusion. But don't confuse a failure to disprove the conclusion with a valid conclusion. It's not the same thing. |
answered on Friday, Dec 15, 2023 02:15:13 PM by Alan Wells | |
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No fallacy that I can see. In fact, it is a strong argument but ONLY IF one is providing reasons that alternative medicine is effective is because traditional medicine is problematic. |
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answered on Friday, Dec 15, 2023 09:52:14 AM by Bo Bennett, PhD | ||||||||||||
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