richard smith

What logical fallacy would this be?

person 1: God cannot *FORESEE* without *FOREORDAINING*." no scripture says that.

Person 2: The Bible as a *WHOLE* [in toto!] says that!

asked on Tuesday, Sep 15, 2020 07:46:10 PM by richard smith

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Bo Bennett, PhD

I see no fallacy, just a subjective interpretation.

answered on Wednesday, Sep 16, 2020 07:16:37 AM by Bo Bennett, PhD

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richard smith writes:

It just seem like they would be when given such a generic answer.

posted on Wednesday, Sep 16, 2020 09:05:10 AM
DrBill writes:

Indeed.  If I let a rock go, it will fall (as was foreseen). It's a matter of prior experience, not cause.  It's possible "foreordination" just too nuanced for me, and they really mean the same.

No wonder Babel led to language problems.

posted on Thursday, Sep 17, 2020 07:12:03 PM

No fallacy; a bunch of unsupported statements though.

answered on Wednesday, Sep 16, 2020 07:20:26 AM by Rationalissimo

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richard smith writes:


posted on Wednesday, Sep 16, 2020 09:07:46 AM