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As you start to list properties that the animal lacks to justify eating them, you begin to realize that some humans also lack those properties, yet we don’t eat those humans. Is this logical proof that killing and eating animals for food is immoral? Don’t put away your steak knife just yet.
In Eat Meat… Or Don’t, we examine the moral arguments for and against eating meat with both philosophical and scientific rigor. This book is not about pushing some ideological agenda; it’s ultimately a book about critical thinking.
* This is for the author's bookstore only. Applies to autographed hardcover, audiobook, and ebook.
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No. anthropomorphism requires the attribution of a human quality (in this case, to an animal). In your example, you are saying that canine behaviors differ just like human behaviors differ. |
answered on Sunday, Jan 10, 2021 02:09:51 PM by Bo Bennett, PhD | |
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Funny thing is that the analogy is backwards, if anything it is the dogs that are autistic. Since there is no reason to think that dogs are by inclination less social than wolves, it would appear this is a functional impairment, the dogs cannot cooperate as well rather than not wanting too. So to call dogs mentally impaired wolves may well be an accurate statement, most their differences are simply the result on intellectual malfunction resulting from genetic degeneration caused by human selective (in) breeding. The Neanderthal theory has another problem. Neanderthals were likely rather similar to the humans that presently exist, the reason we have the concept of Neanderthal at all is simply because the concept comes from back when different races of humans were classified separately in the science textbook. Because they are basically identical, there is no reason to think that their genes would cause any particular problems or even differences as likely neanderthal-human genes work essentially the same as the human-human ones. |
answered on Monday, Jan 11, 2021 09:25:53 AM by GoblinCookie | |
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