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Can subjectivity make a fallacy not a fallacy?Professional artist A creates paintings. Person 1: Artist A's artwork is bad because he is a Biden supporter. Now, I know this is usually a non sequitur fallacy because the two things are completely unrelated. But, since artwork being good or bad is subjective does that change things? Say person 1 has negative feelings about Biden, and so when he looks at the artwork of a Biden supporter he gets negative feelings and it makes the artwork look bad to him. Or, maybe he is just lying for political reasons. How would we then tell if its a logical fallacy or not? |
asked on Monday, Dec 06, 2021 04:09:24 PM by Jason Mathias | |
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