Does this qualify as a fallacy?

While I know that languages can’t possess a racial quality, someone once claimed that despite originating in Europe, Spanish is a nonwhite language because the majority of speakers in the world aren’t white. What sort of fallacy might this be tagged as? 

This might be a simple statement on the demographics of Spanish speakers. As such, it is not an argument, and there are no fallacies.

It would then be a case of, 'is this true or false'?

If someone is seriously trying to treat language as if it could have a 'race', then that sounds like anthropomorphism where the not-human is given a human quality, and behaved towards as if it were human, when it isn't.

It appears that they are simply defining what a "nonwhite" language is, then claiming that Spanish fits that definition. I don't see any obvious fallacies. If there is a different definition of a "nonwhite" language used and this is in an argument context, there might be a definist fallacy going on, but that might be a reach.

Depending on how the notion is further used in an argument (as others have pointed out, the statement isn't an argument; it's merely a statement of opinion or perhaps something purported to be fact), the statement could turn into equivocation by leaving "nonwhite language" undefined and thereby open to multiple definitions or perhaps even changing definitions in different part of the argument.