About dictators

"An overwhelming majority of dictators in the history of mankind are men."

a) Do you think that this opinion of mine is based on facts and is not a fallacy?

b) If it is a fallacy, which one is it?

c) Another person answered to me, "Then an overwhelming majority of state rulers* were men, right?" Is this also a fallacy as well?

* State rulers might include the ones that don't rule the country dictatorially

On the surface, you and the other person just seem to be stating facts. Neither of which are fallacies. If you want to get into the weeds a bit more, the concept of a dictator goes back to the Roman empire, and states predate the Romans by thousands of years. As you go further back in history, records become hard to find, and it becomes more difficult to apply modern concepts of government. So, historians could debate who was and wasn't a dictator or a head of state, but I think it would be extremely difficult to make the case that women comprised the majority of either group.

However, there seems to be an unspoken disagreement here, about whether men are more likely to become dictators than women. And, in general they are. But, the other person's statement seems to be taking a more nuanced angle: If a person is already the leader of a state, is a man more likely to seize absolute power than a woman? My guess is yes, but I think that would require more information to answer.

<p>a) Yes, your observation is fact-based, as historical records indeed show that most dictators have been men. But it's not your opinion, it's an empirical fact. It's like saying, 'Drink is wet.' There's not much room for personal views here, unless you believe in dry water. </p>
<p>b) It's not a fallacy unless you're implying that only men can be dictators because majority of them have been men. That would be a hasty generalization, like saying all swans are white because you've only seen white swans. Or, perhaps you've been spending too much time with Alice and expect the Dictator Queen of Hearts to yell "Off with his head!" anytime now. </p>
<p>c) If the other person is implying that being a man is a requirement to be a ruler, then yes, this would be a fallacy. History has witnessed many remarkable female rulers as well - Queen Elizabeth I, Catherine the Great, Cleopatra, just to name a few. Thinking only men can rule would be like thinking only turtles can wear half-shells. Ridiculous, right? </p>

Technically, yes, the statement is true. But to use that belief in an argument would most likely be fallacious. The fact is mostly due to countries giving way for dictatorships also tend to loan power to men.