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Did I classify the fallacy correctly?Hey Is it a ''Post hoc ergo propter hoc'' fallacy when someone states for example: ''CIA has ties with Amazon, therefore Amazon Echo is spying on people'', or is this another fallacy?
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| asked on Wednesday, Jan 03, 2018 07:57:29 AM by Warpdrive1 | |
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The format for that fallacy is "Since event Y followed event X, event Y must have been caused by event X." In this case, we aren't really talking about causes and events; we are talking about drawing an unsubstantiated conclusion from a premise. I would say that this is more of a Non Sequitur or even simply an unsubstantiated claim if we don't accept that the CIA has ties with Amazon. |
| answered on Wednesday, Jan 03, 2018 08:20:05 AM by Bo Bennett, PhD | |
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While I agree completely with Bo's analysis, this fallacy lends itself to further fleshing out.
First, I would characterize this fallacy as follows: " If propositions x and y cannot both be true, then x and y MUST each be false. " Two possible contingencies exist (will use examples to illustrate each). 1. X = All dogs are reptiles Y= All dogs are insects Propositions X and Y cannot both be true, and each proposition separately is false. (If this were the only possibility, no fallacy would exist.) 2. X= All dogs are mammals Y= All dogs are reptiles Again, Propositions X &Y cannot both be true, however, Propositions X IS true, while Y is not. Thus, this contingency illustrates the fallacy of the original statement. In the real-world example cited by the OP, there are of course numerous religions, however, this principle remains intact, and the atheist s proposition is fallacious. |
| answered on Friday, Jan 05, 2018 11:09:26 AM by modelerr |
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