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Great question. It is a fallacy if in argument form or the unspoken assumption is that since Person A did it too, then it is permissible for Person B. The definition is "Claiming the argument is flawed by pointing out that the one making the argument is not acting consistently with the claims of the argument." The claim of being flawed is the key component here. It is not a fallacy if the response is to demonstrate hypocrisy. |
answered on Wednesday, Feb 15, 2017 09:45:28 AM by Bo Bennett, PhD | |
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