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Cause and effectSince chocolate covered strawberries and raw oysters are considered aphrodisiacs, whoever eats these two things are obviously thinking about sex and getting aroused.
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| asked on Wednesday, Sep 07, 2016 09:55:12 AM by Kris | |
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I would say this is just confusing a probabilistic correlation with a certain one. If one were to accept that these foods do indeed promote sexual arousal (more fiction than fact), then one must realize that this is a probabilistic correlation, which means it only occurs some of the time, under certain conditions. Therefore, to claim that there is "obviously" arousal, is fallacious reasoning.
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| answered on Wednesday, Sep 07, 2016 10:18:08 AM by Bo Bennett, PhD |
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This is clearly a logical fallacy (a non sequitur). Even if ingesting a combination of strawberries and chocolate constitutes an aphrodisiac (and research results are far from clear) there is no indication that the participant(s) is aware of this property – they may simply enjoy the synergistic flavors. BTW, the same fallacious argument could be made substituting “anti-inflammatory property” for aphrodisiac.
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| answered on Wednesday, Sep 07, 2016 02:24:45 PM by modelerr |
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