implied meanings.

"Here's to you who can't call it a Chinese Virus but still refer to Chinese food as Chinese food."

Is this an appeal to innuendo or any kind of fallacy at all?...How does one respond to someone who states this using logic in their response?

asked on Sunday, Mar 22, 2020 07:57:56 AM by Ecccch

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0	Bryan writes: It sounds rather like a toast! There was a recent question which may answer this for you: https://www.logicallyfallacious.com/questions/3wgOUhdx/the_chinese_virus.html
	posted on Sunday, Mar 22, 2020 03:58:04 PM

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Aryan

I would say that it is False Equivalence because Chinese Food is usually a good thing (I love Chinese food), while COVID-19 is a murderous virus on a rampage around the world. There is a serious difference.

answered on Tuesday, Mar 24, 2020 06:24:42 PM by Aryan

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DrBill writes:

It may be, but it's hard to define it so when it depends on the listener to make the equivalence, which is the listener's error, not the speaker's. I like Chinese food too, but don't relate Chinese virus to food at all, accepting the phrase without accepting the disease. Ambiguity plays at best a role, and makes the malice understood in "Chinese virus" into some sort of dog-whistle, itself a fallacy.

posted on Thursday, Mar 26, 2020 02:03:16 PM

Night 0	The phrasing suggests the speaker is accusing the listener of having a double standard in taking issue with calling Covid the Chinese Virus but being fine with calling Chinese food Chinese food. This assumes that it should be ok to refer to anything originating in a given country as [country name] [thing being referred to]. The problem is that it ignores that the original context of calling Covid the Chinese Virus is racist, which is why people take issue with it being called that. It's either Accident Fallacy , False Equivalence or Faulty Comparison.
	answered on Sunday, Jul 26, 2020 01:47:54 PM by Night
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