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implied meanings."Here's to you who can't call it a Chinese Virus but still refer to Chinese food as Chinese food." Is this an appeal to innuendo or any kind of fallacy at all?...How does one respond to someone who states this using logic in their response?
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asked on Sunday, Mar 22, 2020 07:57:56 AM by Ecccch | ||||
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I would say that it is False Equivalence because Chinese Food is usually a good thing (I love Chinese food), while COVID-19 is a murderous virus on a rampage around the world. There is a serious difference. |
answered on Tuesday, Mar 24, 2020 06:24:42 PM by Aryan | |
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The phrasing suggests the speaker is accusing the listener of having a double standard in taking issue with calling Covid the Chinese Virus but being fine with calling Chinese food Chinese food.
This assumes that it should be ok to refer to anything originating in a given country as [country name] [thing being referred to]. The problem is that it ignores that the original context of calling Covid the Chinese Virus is racist, which is why people take issue with it being called that. It's either Accident Fallacy , False Equivalence or Faulty Comparison. |
answered on Sunday, Jul 26, 2020 01:47:54 PM by Night | |
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