implied meanings.

"Here's to you who can't call it a Chinese Virus but still refer to Chinese food as Chinese food."

Is this an appeal to innuendo or any kind of fallacy at all?...How does one respond to someone who states this using logic in their response?

asked on Sunday, Mar 22, 2020 07:57:56 AM by Ecccch

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0	Bryan writes: It sounds rather like a toast! There was a recent question which may answer this for you: https://www.logicallyfallacious.com/questions/3wgOUhdx/the_chinese_virus.html
	posted on Sunday, Mar 22, 2020 03:58:04 PM

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Answers

Aryan

I would say that it is False Equivalence because Chinese Food is usually a good thing (I love Chinese food), while COVID-19 is a murderous virus on a rampage around the world. There is a serious difference.

answered on Tuesday, Mar 24, 2020 06:24:42 PM by Aryan

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DrBill writes:

It may be, but it's hard to define it so when it depends on the listener to make the equivalence, which is the listener's error, not the speaker's. I like Chinese food too, but don't relate Chinese virus to food at all, accepting the phrase without accepting the disease. Ambiguity plays at best a role, and makes the malice understood in "Chinese virus" into some sort of dog-whistle, itself a fallacy.

posted on Thursday, Mar 26, 2020 02:03:16 PM