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Perceptions of risk in human activitiesWe know that there are more automobile accidents yearly than aviation accidents. We also know that one is more likely to be involved in a car crash than a plane crash. Yet, people fear being involved in a plane crash more. Surely, this is irrational...right? Logical form: Events A and B exist. Both A and B are equally and severely undesirable. A is statistically more likely to occur than B. Therefore, A should be feared more than B. Yet, the conclusion is not actualised; B is feared more than A. Does the logical form of argument then, make errors? If so, where? Is it in the assumption of "equal" undesirability? Or is it a McNamara Fallacy that ignores qualitative reasons aviophobia? For instance - people have less control over a plane than a car. Thus the loss of control may form a basis for fear, rather than the likelihood of a crash. Fear of loss of control is qualitative, not quantitative, which the above argument ignores. |
asked on Friday, Jun 26, 2020 06:17:47 PM by TrappedPrior (RotE) | |
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Claims are constantly being made, many of which are confusing, ambiguous, too general to be of value, exaggerated, unfalsifiable, and suggest a dichotomy when no such dichotomy exists. Good critical thinking requires a thorough understanding of the claim before attempting to determine its veracity. Good communication requires the ability to make clear, precise, explicit claims, or “strong” claims. The rules of reason in this book provide the framework for obtaining this understanding and ability.
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This could be a little bit of a faulty comparison fallacy, since plane crashes almost always result in instant death. Whereas there are many varying degrees of car crashes. Most car crashes are not fatal (and we've all been in one to one degree or another), while most plane crashes are fatal (and most the time we've never experienced one because if we did we probably wouldn't be here to talk about it.) |
answered on Saturday, Jun 27, 2020 09:45:25 AM by Jason Mathias | |
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