A limit to simple logic, perhaps a critique of pure reason
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Original Question
If a virus infects us, why does a nearby, widespread virus not finish us off? If there's no answer, what hypothetical proposition accounts for infection with both Covid 19 and flu's not infecting the same population at the same time?
There's a process hypothesis here imo.
Answers
1Wouldn't this be a question for a virologist? Not only can a population have more than one virus but an individual can. It's quite common.
Given that most people who succumb to these are those who are frail or ill then they are probably going to succumb to either. It would seem like common sense* that those weakened by one may be finished off by the other, but science and common sense don't necessarily mix well. A science or medical source would seem more appropriate.
*I almost typed "It would seem logical" but didn't think it useful to associate this even indirectly with logic.
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