Appeal to definition
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Original Question
Is there a case when using a definition of a word as an argument is not a fallacy?
Answers
1So the fallacy here is using a dictionary’s limited definition of a term as evidence that term cannot have another meaning, expanded meaning, or even conflicting meaning. So for example, this would NOT be a fallacy:
Person 1: I may be stupid, but I am no moron.
Person 2: Actually, the definition of "moron" is "a stupid person".
This is where the fallacy comes in:
Person 1: When I accused you of acting like a moron, I meant that you acted foolishly, I didn't mean that you were stupid.
Person 2: The definition of "moron" is "a stupid person", so you did mean that I was stupid.
Person 1: I may be stupid, but I am no moron.
Person 2: Actually, the definition of "moron" is "a stupid person".
This is where the fallacy comes in:
Person 1: When I accused you of acting like a moron, I meant that you acted foolishly, I didn't mean that you were stupid.
Person 2: The definition of "moron" is "a stupid person", so you did mean that I was stupid.
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