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Beauty = God, Ugly = Man

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Original Question
"Whatever I see as beautiful, I relate that to God. Whatever I see that's ugly, I relate that to man."

Any fallacies there?

Answers

3
You've not expressed an idea that includes a train of thought , or reasoning, that has led to a conclusion. You've merely expressed an opinion. So it isn't fallacious mainly because ugly and beauty are not definitions as much as they are your subjective views. Though I would wait for the logicians answer he is also a psychologist so you might get some free analysing. Lol
I agree with the previous statements in general. First, it is poorly worded, and only reflects a belief not a fallacy. The statement resembles the Christian doctrine of Original Sin, where humanity is flawed and inherently evil, and in need of Divine redemption by the grace of of the perfect 'beauty' of God.

The statement "Whatever I see as beautiful, I relate that to God. Whatever I see that's ugly, I relate that to man." may be closer to a fallacy if someone uses this in an argument that "Beauty = God, Ugly = Man." Cum hoc ergo propter hoc (with this, therefore because of this). The fallacy would be, because I see humans do 'ugly' things, therefore humans are 'ugly.'

I agree with Skips 777 - there is only an expression of belief/opinion here. However disagreeable the assertion, there is no logical fallacy present.
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