Cause and effect

I would say this is just confusing a probabilistic correlation with a certain one. If one were to accept that these foods do indeed promote sexual arousal (more fiction than fact), then one must realize that this is a probabilistic correlation, which means it only occurs some of the time, under certain conditions. Therefore, to claim that there is "obviously" arousal, is fallacious reasoning.

This is clearly a logical fallacy (a non sequitur). Even if ingesting a combination of strawberries and chocolate constitutes an aphrodisiac (and research results are far from clear) there is no indication that the participant(s) is aware of this property – they may simply enjoy the synergistic flavors. BTW, the same fallacious argument could be made substituting “anti-inflammatory property” for aphrodisiac.