consent for sex vs shopping comparison in marriage

Could this be false equivalence? Shopping is not equivalent to rape

Well, the money in a marriage is not ONLY the husbands so the premise that shopping without husbands consent is the wife stealing from the husband is a false premise. Now, it may be possible that in another culture the money in a marriage is the husbands and the wife has no access to it unless the husband gives it to her. That would make this reasoning a little different I would assume....based on American culture it's a false premise and weak analogy as it's been said.

Whew, weak analogy is interesting, I’m getting a total non-sequitur.

This sounds more like a joke than a fallacy. However, it could be argued that it is a weak analogy because in the first case we are talking about a violation of bodily autonomy, which is very different from the latter case.