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Is this an Example of a Double Standard Fallacy or Strawman?

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Original Question

P1. Ukraine needs to compromise with Russia America instigated this by expanding NATO on Russias borders. America is further causing unnecessary Ukrainian deaths by giving them weapons instead of allowing negotiations  and peace.  Just Flip this Entire scenario on its head if Russia was expanding and was talking about adding Mexico to its alliance your telling me the U.S would not invade? 


P2. So using your Flip Scenario. If Russia was expanding near the U.S. Im going to use what exactly what you just said and use all the same details just replace the words “Ukraine, Russia” with America, Mexico”. In your  hypothetical you’re saying Mexico should compromise with the U.S as Russia instigated this by Expansing its alliance near American borders. And also Russia would also be causing further unnecessary Mexican deaths by giving them weapons to them instead of allowing negotiations and peace? 


P1. That’s a total strawman! Where did I say any of that ? I would never say Mexico should compromise or blame Russia for a American invasion. The U.S would obviously bare full responsibility for the war. 


P2. So what’s the point of telling me too flip this on its head? I literally just quoted you word for word just took replaced the names of the countries but somehow you conclude a totally different thing ? If the situation is just flipped as you said how hard the standards different ? 

Answers

2

There are far too many unsubstantiated premises proposed by P1, starting with the first sentence, to analyze this properly.

P1 begins with opinion and uses an analogy. This would be a weak analogy because of a myriad of differences (including treating "NATO" as a country). P1 then is claiming a fallacy where there is none. It seems clear that this is what P2 was precisely implying. To avoid being accused of strawmen, P2 should have said "so what you are *implying* is..."?

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