implied meanings.
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Original Question
"Here's to you who can't call it a Chinese Virus but still refer to Chinese food as Chinese food."
Is this an appeal to innuendo or any kind of fallacy at all?...How does one respond to someone who states this using logic in their response?
Comments on Question
Answers
2The phrasing suggests the speaker is accusing the listener of having a double standard in taking issue with calling Covid the Chinese Virus but being fine with calling Chinese food Chinese food.
This assumes that it should be ok to refer to anything originating in a given country as [country name] [thing being referred to]. The problem is that it ignores that the original context of calling Covid the Chinese Virus is racist, which is why people take issue with it being called that. It's either Accident Fallacy , False Equivalence or Faulty Comparison.
I would say that it is False Equivalence because Chinese Food is usually a good thing (I love Chinese food), while COVID-19 is a murderous virus on a rampage around the world. There is a serious difference.
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It sounds rather like a toast!
There was a recent question which may answer this for you:
https://www.logicallyfallacious.com/questions/3wgOUhdx/the_chinese_virus.html